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امتحان سيبا , Cepa exam للصف الثاني عشر 2024.

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امتحان اللغةالإنجلیزیة 2024
QUESTION BOOKLET كُتیّب الأسئلة
TOTAL TIME ALLOWED: 3 HOURS الوقت: 3 ساعات فقط
The test has three parts – ینقسم ھذا الإمتحان إلى ثلاثة أجزاء
1. Grammar, Word Forms and Vocabulary
(Questions 1 – 90)
You should spend about 60 minutes on this part.
1. القواعد/ معاني الكلمات – الأسئلة من
1 إلى 90
یجب أن تخصص 60 دقیقة لھذا الجزء من الإمتحان.
2. Reading (Questions 91 – 120)
You should spend about 60 minutes on this part.
2. القراءة– الأسئلة من 91 إلى 120
یجب أن تخصص 60 دقیقة لھذا الجزء من الإمتحان.
3. Writing (There are two writing tasks.)
You should spend about 60 minutes on this part.
3. الكتابة (یحتوي ھذا الجزء على قطعتین
للكتابة)
یجب أن تخصص 60 دقیقة لھذا الجزء من الإمتحان.
INSTRUCTIONS : تعلیمات إلى الطلبة
1. Write your answers on the answer sheet only. . 1. أكتب إجاباتك على ورقة الإجابة
2. Do not write in this question booklet. . 2. لا تكتب على كُتیّب الأسئلة
3. Use pencil only. . 3. إستخدم قلم الرصاص فقط
لن یُسمح للطالب الذي یرتكب مخالفة الغش بتأدیة إختبارات أخرى وقد یُحرم من الإلتحاق بأي مؤسسسة من مؤسسات
التعلیم العالي بالدولة.
الغش ھو التحدث مع طالب أخر أثناء الإختبار أو الإیماء لھ، أو نقل المعلومات بأي طریقة لطالب أخر، أو استخدام أي
معلومات أو أدوات ممنوعة. تُعتبر إعاقة سیر الامتحانات بمثابة غش.
لقد قرأت المعلومات الواردة أعلاه وأدركت مسؤولیاتي في ما یتعلق بالغش أثناء الإمتحان العام لقیاس القدرة في اللغة
الإنجلیزیة.
Mock Exam
توقیع الطالب/الطالبة:_________________________________

CEPA-English 2024 Mock Exam
© NAPO 2024 Page 1
Part 1 – Grammar, Word Forms and Vocabulary / – القواعد/ معاني الكلمات
الجزء الأول
Instructions: : التعلیمات
You should spend about 60 minutes on this
part.
دقیقة لھذا الجزء من الإمتحان. 60 علیك أن تخصص
Questions 1-90 are incomplete sentences.
Choose the best word or phrase to complete
each sentence.
Fill in the circle on your answer sheet
corresponding to the letters A, B, C or D.
إن الأسئلة من 1 إلى 90 ھي جمل غیر تامة. إختر
الكلمة أو العبارة الأفضل لإتمام كل منھا.
على D أو C ،B ،A إملأ الدائرة التي تناسب الأحرف
ورقة الإجابة.
1. Traffic in Dubai is _______________ heavy in the morning rush to work and school.
A) even
B) very
C) more
D) much
2. _______________ he was a careful driver, he got into an accident.
A) Since
B) Whereas
C) Although
D) Whenever
3. We are looking forward to ________________ to Salala.
A) drive
B) driving
C) are driving
D) have driven
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4. My sister is too young to cook for _______________.
A) herself
B) myself
C) oneself
D) ourselves
5. Mount Everest in Nepal is _______________ mountain on Earth.
A) higher
B) highest
C) most high
D) the highest
6. The boy _______________ sits next to me is very smart.
A) who
B) whom
C) where
D) whose
7. Which sentence is correct English?
A) I only go to the mall with my sister on Saturday.
B) With my sister to the mall I only go on Saturday.
C) To the mall I only with my sister go on Saturday.
D) On Saturday with my sister to the mall I only go.
8. I am _______________ with driving the same way to school everyday.
A) to bore
B) boring
C) bored
D) be bored
9. On Thursdays, Sarah and her sisters _______________ tennis.
A) plays
B) play
C) playing
D) are playing
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10. _______________ I arrived home, I called my mother to tell her the news.
A) While
B) Until
C) As soon as
D) As long as
11. Justin has read almost all of _______________ books over there on the shelf.
A) this
B) that
C) them
D) those
12. National Geographic had a photography contest last year. The photo
_______________ was the most popular was of Peru, in South America.
A) when
B) where
C) which
D) whose
13. _______________ of my sisters went to college in France.
A) Nor
B) Both
C) Either
D) Every
14. One student understood the lesson well, _______________ the others did not.
A) but
B) so
C) for
D) nor
15. I wake up and do my exercises _______________ day.
A) all
B) any
C) every
D) the whole
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16. I am worried about _______________ the driving test.
A) take
B) takes
C) taking
D) to take
17. _______________ the summer, Ahmed and his family usually go to the beach.
A) On
B) At
C) While
D) During
18. Aisha rides to school in _______________ brother’s car.
A) the
B) his
C) her
D) hers
19. My friend has _______________ football since he was 12.
A) to play
B) played
C) playing
D) been played
20. _______________ did she write the book, but she also did the artwork for it.
A) Nor
B) Both
C) Either
D) Not only
21. Could I borrow your phone? I _______________ to contact my dentist.
A) has
B) have
C) having
D) am having
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22. My brother is not aware _______________ the trouble his dog causes.
A) of
B) in
C) at
D) with
23. If the machine _______________, push the green button.
A) stop
B) stops
C) stopped
D) will stop
24. _______________ helps keep you healthy.
A) Exercising
B) Exercises
C) Exercised
D) To exercise
25. After I graduate from university, I _______________ overseas to study some more.
A) going
B) do go
C) went to
D) am going
26. Moza likes _______________ the newspaper.
A) read
B) reads
C) to read
D) is reading
27. I have a problem _______________ the battery in my mobile phone.
A) at
B) from
C) of
D) with
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28. _______________ can I buy camel milk?
A) Where
B) Who
C) What
D) Which
29. After I _______________ studying, I took a walk around the campus.
A) finish
B) finished
C) finishing
D) have finished
30. Which road _______________ we take to get to Jumeriah?
A) do
B) are
C) have
D) need
31. Which sentence is correct English?
A) To Dubai do you by bus like to travel?
B) Do you by bus like to travel to Dubai?
C) Do you like to travel to Dubai by bus?
D) Do you to Dubai like by bus to travel?
32. _______________ do we sign up for the class?
A) Who
B) Where
C) What
D) Which
33. You _______________ go to sleep early the night before a test.
A) need
B) have
C) ought
D) should
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34. Lately, I have been _______________ a taxi to work.
A) take
B) took
C) taken
D) taking
35. If I had known you were flying in today, I _______________ you up at the airport.
A) would pick
B) had picked
C) will be picking
D) would have picked
36. Her husband makes dinner every night _______________ he likes to cook.
A) after
B) while
C) because
D) so that
37. The teacher asked _______________ for the answer.
A) them
B) we
C) our
D) they
38. The Turkish coffee wasn’t _______________ for my father, so he sent it back.
A) too strong
B) strong enough
C) as strong as
D) stronger than
39. Mohammad _______________ to eat pizza with his friends at the mall.
A) want
B) wants
C) wanting
D) is wanting
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40. There are a lot of clouds in the sky, but it _______________ not rain.
A) need
B) could
C) must
D) may
41. It’s never a good idea to make _______________ decisions because you often regret
them later.
A) haste
B) hasty
C) hasten
D) hastily
42. Although my youngest brother is quite shy, he has the unusual _______________ to
make people laugh.
A) able
B) ably
C) ability
D) enable
43. We use air conditioning in the summer to _______________ the rooms.
A) cool
B) coolly
C) cooled
D) coolness
44. Selling their beach house was not a _______________ move.
A) profit
B) profited
C) profitable
D) profitably
45. After a long discussion this morning, they came to a _______________ about the
project.
A) decide
B) decision
C) decisive
D) decisively
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46. Although the weather was hot, we had an _______________ time at the beach.
A) enjoy
B) enjoyable
C) enjoyably
D) enjoyment
47. The dog _______________ followed his owner into the house.
A) obey
B) obedient
C) obedience
D) obediently
48. His essay was a _______________ between Brazil and Portugal.
A) compare
B) comparison
C) comparative
D) comparatively
49. My friend does not hear well, so I have to _______________ everything I say.
A) repeat
B) repetitive
C) repetition
D) repeatedly
50. Microsoft has offices around the world, but they are _______________ in Seattle.
A) base
B) basic
C) based
D) basically
51. It is not a good idea to eat _______________ eggs – they can make you sick.
A) glad
B) eager
C) raw
D) sympathetic
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52. The _______________ of this computer isn’t working properly, it keeps going blank.
A) clause
B) monitor
C) conflict
D) version
53. What shape is the box? Rectangular or_______________?
A) dead
B) square
C) foreign
D) serious
54. Although Ali failed two quizzes, his _______________ score in science was good.
A) overall
B) internal
C) principal
D) approximate
55. It rained _______________ last night so the garden is really wet this morning.
A) nearly
B) skillfully
C) practically
D) continuously
56. In many parts of the world people _______________ their hands when they say goodbye.
A) eat
B) wave
C) forget
D) prevent
57. You need special clothes to protect against _______________ heat or cold.
A) busy
B) orange
C) extreme
D) admirable
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58. Yesterday I cut my _______________ when I was preparing dinner.
A) spot
B) shop
C) finger
D) extent
59. The main _______________ in Mali is corn.
A) host
B) crop
C) liquid
D) colonist
60. Don’t eat that orange. It isn’t _______________ yet.
A) selfish
B) purple
C) sore
D) ripe
61. We watched the air show from the _______________ of our house.
A) roof
B) lawyer
C) pleasure
D) protection
62. She wanted a better _______________, so she changed her job.
A) grave
B) advice
C) salary
D) photograph
63. The cat _______________ all the milk on the floor.
A) spilled
B) flattened
C) sharpened
D) heightened
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64. The team has to decide on the best _______________ to the problem.
A) expression
B) exception
C) solution
D) application
65. I’ve left my wallet at home; can you _______________ me some money for lunch?
A) freeze
B) lend
C) repair
D) apologize
66. The sun caused the curtains to _______________.
A) fade
B) shave
C) polish
D) astonish
67. The boat went _______________ the river.
A) anything
B) already
C) across
D) together
68. When my nose is itchy, I _______________ it for relief.
A) harm
B) insure
C) decrease
D) rub
69. Joan _______________ travelling to other countries.
A) speaks
B) believes
C) appears
D) loves
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70. In some countries people still hunt with a bow and _______________.
A) arrow
B) mouse
C) thunder
D) poverty
71. Our neighbours painted their house green and pink. My mother likes it, but I think it
looks _______________.
A) ugly
B) false
C) silver
D) grateful
72. When you fill in the form, make sure that your _______________ is clear.
A) thorn
B) feast
C) nuisance
D) handwriting
73. I am new to Dubai, so I don’t know which _______________ of town is best to live in.
A) income
B) area
C) approach
D) environment
74. They only printed part of the speech in the magazine so I looked up the full
_______________ on the Internet.
A) region
B) text
C) community
D) element
75. The school offers a wide _______________ of subjects to the students.
A) journal
B) credit
C) range
D) culture
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76. She _______________ badly to the news. She started crying.
A) reacted
B) implied
C) convened
D) contributed
77. The street runs _______________ to the river.
A) parallel
B) adequate
C) subsequent
D) professional
78. If a person gives you something, you should _______________ by saying, “Thank
you.”
A) assume
B) analyze
C) interpret
D) respond
79. May I have a _______________ of cake, please?
A) piece
B) beauty
C) fear
D) demand
80. A child’s _______________ is important in every society.
A) ratio
B) license
C) welfare
D) revenue
81. _______________ fruit and fish in the sun is very common in hotter climates.
A) Pricing
B) Pulling
C) Drying
D) Running
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82. You should have a _______________ tank of petrol before leaving on a long road trip.
A) full
B) kind
C) black
D) favorite
83. The sea was too _______________ to swim in.
A) some
B) rough
C) sweet
D) fearful
84. The shoe store is _______________ next to the sports store.
A) located
B) ensured
C) constrained
D) maximized
85. All of the _______________ in the movie did a very good job.
A) points
B) actors
C) seasons
D) orders
86. Braille is a way to help _______________ people to read using their fingers.
A) key
B) flat
C) blind
D) upper
87. The baby is sick so the doctor is _______________ her with medicine.
A) washing
B) treating
C) punishing
D) balancing
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88. The exam will be in the large _______________ and will start at 9:00.
A) hall
B) army
C) patient
D) summer
89. The _______________ from Dubai to Bangkok takes about six hours.
A) confidence
B) mouse
C) advertiser
D) flight
90. The bag fell into the water, but luckily it didn’t _______________, so we were able to
save it.
A) sink
B) march
C) disturb
D) suspect
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Part 2 – Reading / الجزء الثا ني – القراءة
Instructions: : التعلیمات
You should spend about 60 minutes on the
four texts in this part.
علیك أن تخصص 60 دقیقة للنصوص الأربعة في ھذ ا
الجزء من الإمتحان.
Choose the best answer A, B, C or D
according to the information in the text.
Fill in the circle on your answer sheet
corresponding to the letters, A, B, C or D.
بناءً على D أو C ،B ، A إختر الإجابة الأفضل
المعلومات الواردة في النص.
D أو C ،B ،A إملأ الدائرة التي تناسب الأحرف
على ورقة الإجابة.
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Text 1
Supporting Nutrition For Everyone
Links: Counting Calories Vitamins 4 Everyone Daily Nutrition
Organic Food Online New Recipe Ideas Our Sponsors
**For a Free Subscription to our magazine Organic Eating, click here**
5 Ways to Eat Right
posted 18/08/2006 by one of our sponsors, Dr. Rochelle Kranz
1. Snack Well Everyone gets hungry between meals. It’s perfectly acceptable to reach for a snack.
However, the type of snack you decide to grab is what makes the difference between healthy and nonhealthy
eating. Reach for a banana, carrot or even fresh cheese instead of potato chips or chocolate.
2. Drink Water Soda and even most fruit juices contain lots of sugar and other additives. Without
realizing it, that fresh shake that you thought was good for you is really doing your body harm. The best
liquid for our bodies at all times is just plain water.
3. Balance Your Diet Avoid eating too much of on any one particular kind of food. For example,
don’t load your plate up with just rice. Select a mixture of foods for each meal to balance your intake of
essential vitamins and proteins.
4. Cook at Home Few people realize that one of the main reasons food from restaurants tastes so
delicious is because it is prepared using huge amounts of butter, oil and salt. Cooking at home allows you
to call the shots on exactly which ingredients get added.
5. Regulate Portions It’s easy to stack your plate high with lots of delicious food. While you do not
have to stop eating your favorite foods, measuring how much of them you are putting on your plate will help
you to stay within healthy boundaries. A general rule to follow is 1 cup per food item.
To read Dr. Mary Trezza’s 28/04/2006 article “5 Ways to a New You”, click here
Questions from our readers
Answered by Dr. Stephanie Fillius
Q: Dear Dr. Stephanie, how important is it to buy organic food? – by A Concerned Consumer – posted on
22/12/2005
A: Dear Consumer: Although it is more expensive than regular food, organic food is considered to be both
fresher and more nutritious. It is grown without harmful pesticides or herbicides, so it is, in fact, healthier for
our bodies. –Dr. Stephanie
Q: Dear Dr. Fillius, are vitamins really beneficial for us? – by the Smith Family – posted on 14/09/2005
A: Dear Smith Family: Medical studies have not conclusively shown that taking vitamins is a valuable
addition to our health. However, they have shown that people who take certain vitamins in average
amounts have a decreased risk of heart disease, insomnia and many other problems. –Dr. Stephanie
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© NAPO 2024 Page 19
Questions
91. What is the name of the magazine offered on this website?
A) Click Here
B) Organic Eating
C) 5 Ways to a New You
D) Questions from our readers
92. Which section talks about how much food a person should eat?
A) Snack Well
B) Drink Water
C) Regulate Portions
D) Cook at Home
93. Who wrote the question posted on 22/12/2005?
A) Dr. Vogeler
B) Smith Family
C) Stephanie Fillius
D) A Concerned Consumer
94. In section 4, Cook at Home, what is the meaning of call the shots on?
A) carry
B) phone
C) drink
D) control
95. Which of these is the healthiest drink?
A) soda
B) water
C) fruit juice
D) milk shake
96. According to the text, sugar is an example of a(n) _______________.
A) soda
B) shake
C) additive
D) fruit juice
97. What is the main topic of this website?
A) strong bodies
B) healthy eating
C) doctors’ advice
D) organic cooking
TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE FOR TEXT 2
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Text 2
1. We all love games, and in the UAE on a quiet Friday afternoon at home, or over a Turkish
coffee with your cousin, you can kick back and have some fun with the board game,
backgammon. A game for two players, backgammon uses a rectangular board with 24
long triangles, or points, and 30 black and white pieces. Players throw two dice and move
the pieces according to the number shown on the dice. The winner is the first player to
remove all their pieces from the board.
2. Many Emiratis have learned backgammon from their fathers or grandfathers, but the name
itself comes from Middle English ‘back’ and ‘gamen’, meaning ‘game.’ The earliest use of
the word, less than four hundred years ago, was in 1650. The game itself, however, is much
older. Some people think it is based on ‘Senet,’ a board game played by the ancient
Egyptians in 3500 BC, widely recognised as the oldest board game in the world. Others

believe that it comes from the royal game of ‘Ur,’ which was played in Mesopotamia
(what is now Iraq, Syria, Turkey and Iran) around 3000 BC.
3. From these Middle Eastern roots, over 5000 years ago, backgammon quickly spread
around the world. In fact, the ancient Romans, Rajas in India, fishermen in Iceland and
French kings have all enjoyed it. Nowadays, everyone from royalty to commoners plays it,
even online, making it a truly global game.
Questions
98. What is the topic of Paragraph 1?
A) Backgammon has triangles
B) A description of backgammon
C) The history of backgammon
D) Board games around the world
99. In paragraph 1, the phrase kick back means _______________.
A) run
B) study
C) sleep
D) relax
100. How many pieces does Backgammon have?
A) 2
B) 24
C) 30
D) 1650
101. According to the text, the oldest board game in the world is from _______________.
A) Rome
B) Ancient Egypt
C) Middle England
D) Mesopotamia
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102. In paragraph 2, which refers to _______________.
A) Ur
B) royal
C) backgammon
D) Mesopotamia
103. Which happened first?
A) Syrians played Ur
B) French kings played Senet
C) the word backgammon was used
D) grandfathers taught their sons
TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE FOR TEXT 3
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Text 3
1. On long, hot summer days in the UAE, we often wish we lived in a cooler climate. But
have you ever thought about life in the Arctic Circle – the region of the North Pole
covering parts of Canada, the US, Russia, and Greenland? Eskimos’ inhabit this
challenging, but beautiful hunting and fishing region all year round. In fact, the word
Eskimo means “eater of raw meat”.
2. Historically, most of the Eskimos’ food came from the Arctic Ocean. This included seals,
whales, and fish such as salmon and cod. In summer they also hunted caribou, a type of
deer. Because Eskimos were traditionally hunters, they did not live in one place. [A] They
needed to move around to find animals to catch and eat. When travelling to hunt, they built
temporary dwellings called igloos – round houses made from blocks of snow.
3. Eskimo transportation was both fast and effective. To carry heavy loads while travelling,
teams of dogs were used to pull sleds across the ice. When travelling on the water, they
used kayaks. Not ones to waste, Eskimos made knives and other weapons from the bones
and teeth of animals killed for food. [B] The skins of these animals were also used to make
clothes, which needed to be very warm to protect them from the harsh environment.
4. Like elsewhere in the world, life for Eskimos in the 21st century is quite different from the
past. Prey from the Arctic land and sea is disappearing, making hunting quite difficult.
This is mainly because the introduction of guns and other modern weapons in the 20th
Century led to too many animals being killed. This means it is now harder for them to earn
money from hunting.[C]
5. Most Eskimos now prefer to live in modern houses in smaller communities. As is often the
case, modern clothing is replacing traditional dress, and most food is bought, rather than
hunted. [D] Motorboats and snowmobiles have taken the place of kayaks and dogsleds.
Life in the Artic Circle has changed, much like it has elsewhere in the world. So if you
want to imagine what life is like for Eskimos your age, look around you. It’s probably not
so different from your own.
Questions:
104. Where is the Arctic Circle?
A) south of Alaska
B) next to Canada
C) Russia and Greenland
D) North Pole region
105. The word inhabit in paragraph 1 means _______________.
A) live in
B) sing about
C) eat meat
D) make cool
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106. In paragraph 2, This refers to _______________.
A) water
B) ocean
C) food
D) fisherman
107. Eskimos use igloos _______________.
A) all year with their families
B) in the same place each time
C) when they are gathering food
D) to keep their caribou and whales
108. What were kayaks used for?
A) pulling sleds
B) water sports
C) hunting and fishing
D) transportation by sea
109. Prey, in paragraph 4, is probably a kind of _______________.
A) hunter
B) animal
C) weapon
D) fisherman
110. The main idea of paragraph 5 is _______________.
A) Cultures around the world are different
B) Eskimo traditions and activities will change
C) Eskimo life now is better than life in the past
D) Changes to Eskimo life are similar to those elsewhere
111. Where in the text is the best place to put the sentence, “Generally, they would have
both a summer home and a winter home”?
A) [A]
B) [B]
C) [C]
D) [D]
TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE FOR TEXT 4
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Text 4
1. You are walking down the street. Suddenly, you see someone fall to the ground, unable to
breathe and holding his chest. What should you do? Your actions in those important first
minutes could save a life.
2. When someone suffers a heart attack, he stops breathing and his heartbeat stops or is irregular.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is an emergency procedure that can mean the difference
between life and death. CPR involves two main processes. The first is resuscitation, which
requires you to blow air into the victim’s mouth. You can help prevent brain damage by
blowing air into the mouth, and therefore into the lungs. It also allows more time for you to
re-start the victim’s heart. The second is chest compressions to keep blood circulating around
the body.
3. To do CPR, just remember your A-B-Cs. After calling for help, carefully lay the victim on his
back and start with step A. ‘A’ stands for airway. Tilt the victim’s head back and see if he is
breathing. If he isn’t, continue to step B. ‘B’ is for breathing. Hold the victim’s nose closed
and blow two long breaths into his mouth. You should see his chest move up and down. Then
move on to step C, blood circulation, beginning with chest compressions. Push down just
below the victim’s breast bone, above the stomach. Do 100 compressions per 60 seconds.
Stop after 30 compressions and give two breaths to the victim. By following these steps, blood
and oxygen will flow to the body’s major organs.
4. Of course, this is just a brief description of CPR. If you want further information about CPR
and certification, you should contact hospitals, government agencies, or schools. You can also
get pamphlets and videos about other health-related emergencies there. In some community
centres you can take a course in the important skill of CPR.
5. At least one member of every family should be able to do CPR in emergency situations.
Almost 80% of cardiac arrest victims fall ill at home, with family members nearby. Sadly, less
than 7% of them survive, partly because no one there knows the three steps of CPR.
Remember, saving a life is as easy as A-B-C.
Questions
112. A heart attack is when _______________.
A) a person feels irregular
B) a victim breathes faster
C) the heart stops beating
D) blood flows around the body
113. What are the processes of cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
A) calling for help and holding the nose
B) resuscitation and compressions
C) helping to prevent brain damage
D) blowing air into mouth and lungs
CEPA-English 2024 Mock Exam
© NAPO 2024 Page 25
114. In paragraph 2, which refers to _______________.
A) CPR
B) blow air
C) two processes
D) resuscitation
115. In paragraph 3, the word tilt means _______________.
A) move
B) touch
C) check
D) breathe
116. How many times should you push below the victim’s breast bone in one minute?
A) 2
B) 30
C) 60
D) 100
117. According to the text, to perform CPR, _______________.
A) first help breathing; then circulate blood; and finally clear airway
B) clear the airway first; then help breathing; and finally circulate blood
C) circulate blood; second, help breathing; and then clear airway
D) clear airway; second, circulate blood; and third, help breathing
118. You should go to a community centre if you want _______________.
A) a certificate
B) a brief description
C) to learn CPR
D) pamphlets and videos
119. In paragraph 5, them refers to _______________.
A) family members
B) emergency situations
C) cardiac arrest victims
D) three steps of CPR
120. Paragraph _______________ is the best place to put the sentence, ‘If a brother, sister
or parent knows CPR, they might be able to prevent an unnecessary death.’?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE FOR THE WRITING TASK
CEPA-English 2024 Mock Exam
Page 26 © NAPO 2024
Part الجزء الثالث 3
Writing الكتابة
You should spend about 60 minutes on
this part.
There are two writing tasks: Task 1, an
essay, and Task 2, a letter. You must
complete both of them.
Task 1
Write an essay of 150 to 200 words
about the topic:
People drop out of high school for
many different reasons. Describe
some of them and give your opinion
on them. For each one you should
· Describe the reason
· Say whether it is a good reason to
drop out of school
· Say why you think this.
Task 2
Write a letter of 100 to 150 words
about the topic:
You recently left something important
in a taxi. Write a letter to the
manager of the taxi company. Be
sure to include the following:
· What you lost
· Where and when you lost it
· Why it is important
· What you would like the
manager to do
عليك أن تخصص 60 دقيقة لهذا الجزء من
الامتحان.
یحتوي ھذا الجزء من الإمتحان على موضوعین
للكتابة وعلیك كتابة كل منھما.
الموضوع الأول:
أكتب موضوعاً یتألف من 150 إلى 200 كلمة عن
الموضوع المذكور أدناه:
یترك بعض الطلبة المدرسة لأسباب كثیرة مختلفة.
اكتب عن بعض ھذه الأسباب مع ذكر رأیك أو
وجھة نظرك على الأسباب التي ستكتب عنھا. عند
ذكر الأسباب علیك أن تلتزم بالتالي:
ذكر السبب ·
ثم اشرح حسب رأیك ھل یعتبر ھذا السبب من ·
الأسباب التي تجبر الطلبة على ترك المدرسة؟
ثم اكتب ما ھو رأیك أو وجھة نظرك عن كل ·
سبب؟
الموضوع الثاني :
أكتب رسالة تتألف من 100 إلى 150 كلمة عن
الموضوع التالي:
مؤخراً، نسیت شیئا مھما في سیارة الأجرة.
اكتب رسالة إلى مدیر شركة سیارات الأجرة عن
الحادثة على أن تحتوي رسالتك على التالي:
ماھو الشيء الذي فقدتھ؟ ·
أین ومتى فقدتھ؟ ·
ماھي أھمیة ھذا الشيء؟ ·
ماذا ترید من المدیر أن یفعل؟ ·
CEPA-English 2024 Mock Exam
© NAPO 2024 Page 27
Task 1: Essay Please write in English
یُرجى الكتابة باللغة الإنجلیزیة
CEPA-English 2024 Mock Exam
Page 28 © NAPO 2024

الوسوم:

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